> Female Slaves

[HaHaHabib]

Asalamu Alaikum,

First of all may Allah bless the makers of this forum and all those involved it. Now to my question. I aware that muslim men are allowed to have intercourse with female slaves that they recieve from war. I have no dispute with that but I do may question about the technicality of the situation. If a female slave does not want to have intercourse with her master, isn't possible that the master may force her to. IS that allowed in Islam, some people may consider that rape if he forces her to. I don't mean to graphic or cause a stirr in the forums, it's just a question that i had in my mind and would like an answer to. I know that islam is the truth and the best guidance for mankind since it is from Allah almighty himself so please for the sake Allah don't hestiate to be true..

[abu bakr]

Slaves (men and women) may be taken in the wars that take place between Muslims and kaafirs, not in wars that are fought amongst the Muslims at times of tribulation.
Islam limited the sources of slaves which existed before the mission of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) to just one source, namely slavery resulting from capturing prisoners from among the kuffaar, including women and children.

Shaykh al-Shanqeeti (may Allah have mercy on him) said: The reason why a person may be taken as a slave is his being a kaafir and waging war against Allah and His Messenger. If Allah enables the Muslims who are striving and sacrificing their lives and their wealth and all that Allah has given them to make the word of Allah supreme over the kaafirs, then He allows them to enslave the kuffaar when they capture them, unless the ruler chooses to free them or to ransom them, if that serves the interests of the Muslims.

First of all it is very hard to find slave woman in sharia sense in todays time because muslim are on defence rather on offence. And if u know u can only have non-muslim slave if they accept islam than they should be freed. Muslim cant own a muslim slave if that slave is taken from booty of war. And woman can be only slave if she participated in war, in some rare cases where the punishment is on whole tribe it happend once in time of prophet. But thats the maximum punishment. And Islam encourages to free slave and there is lot of reward for that. I dont think i completely answer ur question i did what ever i could. I hope somebody will answer u better.

[salman]

Originally Posted by HaHaHabib

Asalamu Alaikum

Wa'alaykum As-Salam akhi kareem

Originally Posted by HaHaHabib

First of all may Allah bless the makers of this forum and all those involved it.

welcome to the forum brother, Barak Allahu feeka and Ameen.

Originally Posted by HaHaHabib

Now to my question. I aware that muslim men are allowed to have intercourse with female slaves that they recieve from war. I have no dispute with that but I do may question about the technicality of the situation. If a female slave does not want to have intercourse with her master, isn't possible that the master may force her to. IS that allowed in Islam, some people may consider that rape if he forces her to. I don't mean to graphic or cause a stirr in the forums, it's just a question that i had in my mind and would like an answer to. I know that islam is the truth and the best guidance for mankind since it is from Allah almighty himself so please for the sake Allah don't hestiate to be true..

First, the readers can refer to this thread for more details on the issue of slavery in Islam: Islam and Slavery



Brother, whenever the Islamic haters bring these kind of questions, we always refer to this hadith of the Rasoul of Allah (sal-allahu 'alayhi wa salam): "There shall be no harm nor the causing of harm" [Musnad Ahmad, authenticated by Shaykh al-Bani - rahimahullah]. From this the 'ulama have concluded that it is forbidden to harm anyone by any means - given that they are not enemies of Islam and are in state of war with Muslims.

Now, the female slaves are properties of their master; hence, it is not allowed for the master to harm them by any mean, whether it is hitting them lightly, without any legitimate shari'ah reason, or forcing them to answer their call to bed. As far as I know, just like a wife, a slave woman will be sinning if she doesn't answer her master's call to bed without any legitimate shari'ah excuse: menstruating, sick, or she will be harmed physically or physiologically. However, it doesn't mean that her master can force her to answer his call to bed.

I hope this answers your question and indeed the deen of Allah is His blessing for mankind and true and best of way life and gateway to Jannah.

One last thing for the benefit of other Muslim readers, Muslims shouldn't invent moderate interpretation or be ashamed to tell people about the true teachings of Islam. We tell them what is Islam and what it teaches. If they like it good for them and if they don't too bad. We're here to please Allah Ta'ala, not people. These hate-mangors will never be happy; they're duff and blind like Allah Ta'ala says in the Qur'an.

Wallahu A'lam (and Allah knows best)

[Aayah]

(Sura 4:24) 'And all married women (are forbidden) unto you save those (captives) whom your right hands possess.'"


a new muslim friend asked me about it, and I found this explanation by Ibn Katheer:

"And all married women except those whom your right hands possess (this is) Allah's ordinance to you, and lawful for you are (all women) besides those, provided that you seek (them) with your property, taking (them) in marriage not committing fornication. Then as to those whom you profit by, give them their dowries as appointed; and there is no blame on you about what you mutually agree after what is appointed; surely Allah is Knowing, Wise."

http://www.experiencefestival.com/a/...gin/id/1785278


can I explain it any further to her? because when she read it she read an explanation that said it mean that when women are captured in wartime or are slaves that the men can have sex with any of them, regardless if they are married or not. I dont know what kind of sources she got that from. But I want to make sure that the explanation of Ibn Katheer will be enough for her?

I need the answer as soon as possible please. jazakum allah khair

[salman]

As-Salamu 'Alaykum

sister, what the other sister have said is correct. A man can engage in physical intimacy with his slave whether she is married or not. However, once a married woman is captured or becomes the property of Muslim man, her marriage contract with her previous husband is nullified. In addition, for married slave women, we're ordered to wait for one menstruating period or if she's pregnant then wait till she gives birth and become clean again.

There's some more details to it and I'll post in a while, insha'Allah.

Wallahu A'lam

[Aayah]

but how come!
was that allowed in those days? did'nt they have to marry them so they can engage in physical intimacy in the right way??

[salman]

^what do you mean by "how come?" sister? A man doesn't have to marry his slave woman to engage in physical intimacy with her. This is one of the differences between the free women and slave women. This ruling wasn't only limited during that time, it is still stand today. This is Sharee'ah rule that Allah Ta'ala has ordained for us and we submit to it and ponder upon its benefits.

Search for "slavery" on the forum and you'll find some good articles, insha'Allah

Wallahu A'lam

[Aayah]

Thats really the first time I know about that rule!
okay then what is the reason behind that rule?

why there is such a difference between free and slave woman on that?

how I will explain that to my friend?

[salman]

^sister, to answer your first few questions, you need to understand the wisdom behind slavery in Islam. Understand the fact that Shari'i rule dealing with prisoners of war is far superior than the rules in pre Islamic era and modern era about prisoners of war. The reasons are as follows:

1) Allah Ta'ala has prescribed this law for us and He is our creator and He knows what is best for us

2) The slaves can freely work and be treated like other Muslim believers; they can also earn their freedom

3) The slave woman automatically becomes free if she gives birth to his master's child and the child automatically is treated as a child of a free woman i.e inheritance etc. A master can also marry her off to a free/slave man, in which case, she is free and becomes non-mahram to her ex-master.

For more on this, please refer to following articles:
Islam and Slavery
Female Slaves
Intercourse with female prisoners of war
What is the ruling on intimacy with slave women?

In regard to why this difference between the free and slave woman, it is due to the fact that slave woman is property of her master whereas free woman isn't.

For your last question, both of you sisters need to understand few things:

1) Whose commands do we follow? Can human laws be superior than their Creator's laws?

2) Why do we need to understand Islam from their set of rules and defined morals? Do they even have a consistent set of rules?

3) I would highly recommend you and the other sister to listen to the following video by Shaykh Yasir Qadhi (may Allah preserve him):

PERFECT JUSTICE: Debunking the Male Bias Myth - by Yasir Qadhi

PERFECT JUSTICE: Debunking the Male Bias Myth - by Yasir Qadhi

4) I would highly recommend you personally to have a look at this thread

5) Please have the sister listen to the video first before you answer her

Wallahu A'lam

[Qatada]

And those who guard their chastity,

Except with their wives and the (captives) whom their right hands possess,- for (then) they are not to be blamed,


[Quran Al Ma'arij 70: 29-30]



That aayah explains that women who your 'right hand possesses' are permitted in these types of relationships [something which Allah has permitted], but anyone who goes further than what is mentioned in the verse above will be blameworthy.


Now you might wonder why someone is allowed to do that act with them. The basic rule is that when the man has a child with the slave woman, when he dies - she automatically becomes free, and so does the child.


So Islam actually gets rid of slavery in an amazing manner that the woman is free, and her child is free - when he dies. Causing more people to be set free instead of tied to slavery even after their owner dies [try reading about how the Abbasid kings were arab, greek, africans, turks, and all sorts of races!] This is why you'll see in our islamic history that slavery decreased at a drastic level because the woman had a child, so when the male owner died - her and her child were free people.


You may say 'why didnt they reject the concept of slavery altogether when islam came?' Its not that simple because most of the time, these people were slaves only because they fought Muslims and they would have done the exact same to them if the Muslims were caught! This concept was so common in the world at that time - the same way its so uncommon in the world at todays time (- its Islam that actually removed the concept so much that we find it strange today.)

So something practical had to be done about it to slowly set people free. If Muslims said, you can go back home now after fighting us - then wouldn't the Muslims always be at the disadvantage? So by making them slaves - but respecting them, giving them similar rights - Islam changed the concept of slavery altogether in the world (but again this changed when queen Victoria came to Africa.)



What did Allah's Messenger say about slaves? [translation of meaning];

" Those slaves are your brothers, only God gave you an upper hand over them. So let that who has his brother (i.e. slave) under him give him the same food he himself eats, and the same clothing as he himself wears. The master may not give his brother a task that is beyond his ability. If he does give him such task, let him lend him a hand."

Sahih Bukhari, Belief, Volume 1, Book 2, Number 29


also read;

islamic slavery; a refutation of doubts:
The Islamic position on Slavery: A refutation of doubts :: load-islam

You can read what queen victoria did to slaves when she brought them from africa. These were mainly Muslim slaves that she brought over.





marriage is encouraged more in islam though.


Sahih Al Bukhari Volume 1, Book 3 [book of knowledge], Number 97:

Narrated Abu Burda's father:

Allah's Apostle said "Three persons will have a double reward:

1. A Person from the people of the scriptures who believed in his prophet (Jesus or Moses) and then believed in the Prophet Muhammad (i .e. has embraced Islam).
2. A slave who discharges his duties to Allah and his master.
3. A master of a woman-slave who teaches her good manners and educates her in the best possible way (the religion) and manumits her and then marries her."

Allahu a'lam.

Islam & Slavery - A Refutation of Doubts