> Muslim Women win in West

[salman]

Originally Posted by Abdul-Fattah

Selam aleykum
Brother I disagree. The shaykh himself brought the example of a company and a department in the company. He then said that even if the department has a specific goal, the end purpose of that goal is the very same as the end goal of the company. That is true, and I agree with that part. However just because shariah and Islam have the same aim, does not mean that they are the same. Nobody would claim that this department of the company is equal to the whole company. The whole company is much more then that department alone. And so is Islam more then only shariah. And simply claiming that the two are synonyms is not the right way to handle this. He might have a good point that people should not accept one and reject another, because they do indeed come hand in hand. At it is indeed wrong for people to accept one and reject the other. However the method in which he makes this point is inaccurate.

If we want we can simply stop using all words like fiqh, shariah, iman, and so on, with a similar line of reasoning that all these things are equal to Islam. But in the end of the line, the more words you get rid of, the more difficult it will be for people to understand. These different words exist for a purpose, because they refer to a different concept. So simplifying the matter into Islam=shariah is just wrong in my opinion.
And I don't know, and Allah subhana wa ta'ala knows best.

Wa'alaykum As-Salam

Bismillah Ar-Rahman Ar-Raheem

brother, let's not speak without knowledge because other lay people like ourselves can have the wrong opinion; that's why I directed you to what an 'alim is saying. We're not talking about the linguistic meanings or using the quality sign. We're basically talking about what it refers to. Shaykh Haitham (may Allah preserve him) said that Islam itself is a law and rightly so. I don't think you would disagree with this. He said that no scholar in the past differentiated between the two terms. There're only few contemporary 'ulama who did so. So, from specific perspective Shareeh'ah refers to Islamic rulings. Now what are the Islamic rulings? Islam itself isn't?

As far concerning your last bit, akhi your comparison of different terms isn't a good example because except from 'Sharee'ah' each one refers to a specific aspect of Islam. Iman isn't equal to Islam because Islam is more than just Iman; fiqh isn't Islam because Islam is more than just fiqh. However, Islam refers to law or way of life for people whereas Shareeh'ah refers to the Islamic rulings (in specific sense). I don't really see how we can differentiate between the two and indeed Allah Ta'ala knows best.

Originally Posted by Abdul-Fattah

They can, but they don't have to. Rulings by itjihad are by nature controversial. And it's perfectly plausible that a different scholar reaches a different opinion. No man has some sort of special scale on which he can balance off the benefits/downsides here. If such is the case that they did indeed base this on itjihad, and if it is the case that the countries who do not follow this rule based themself on itjihad of another scolar, then the only way to "solve" this matter is to look at the arguments of both rulings, and then compare them and see which one is strongest.

agreed upon

Originally Posted by Abdul-Fattah

Btw, brother, I hope you don't feel bad because I'm stressing so much over a single quote. I don't have anything against you personal. May Allah subhana wa ta'ala forgive me if I crossed the line.

lol, akhi off course i know that and no worries.

Wallahu A'lam

[Abdul-Fattah]

Selam aleykum
Well the shayk used an argument that was flawed, so I pointed out the flaw. I'm not going to accept that just because he's a scholar and I'm not. Maybe he's right, maybe he isn't, all the same, a flawed argument is insufficient to convince me. But on the other hand I agree that we probably won't "solve" the issue among us. So let's just leave it at:
Allah subhana wa ta'ala knows best.