This is a discussion on Is Taqleed a valid practice ? within the Islamic Worship and Fiqh forums, part of the Islamic Library category; : Question: Is taqleed a valid practice? Does it mean that we can accept any ruling without question? Answer by Shaikh Adil Salahi: Linguistically speaking, ...
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| مشرف منتدى الحياة الإسلامية Join Date: Jul 2008 Location: باكستان /السعودية Posts: 1,243 Gender: ![]() Way of life: Muslim Thanks: 219
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| :Question: Is taqleed a valid practice? Does it mean that we can accept any ruling without question? Answer by Shaikh Adil Salahi: Linguistically speaking, taqleed means “imitation, or following a particular practice”. In another sense, the word means “tradition”. We can see how the word came to acquire both senses, because a tradition means the following of a practice that has been approved as standard by a certain community. In Islamic law, or Fiqh, the word means adopting or following a particular view that is acceptable in a school of thought different from one’s own. Let us take a simple and clear example. According to the Sahfie school of thought, any skin-to-skin contact between a man and a woman who can be married, or are married, invalidates ablution. The Hanafi school does not consider such contact to affect the validity of ablution. If a follower of the Shafie school shakes hands with a woman or hands something to his wife, touching her hand, he is required by his scholars to have a fresh ablution before he can pray. If on a certain occasion he finds this difficult, he may think of adopting the Hanafi view on that particular occasion. Can he do that? If he does, is his prayer without a fresh ablution valid? According to the Shafie school of thought, it is not, but according to the Hanafis, it is. Where does this leave him? Before answering this question, I would like to remind my readers that Imam Abu Haneefah, the first of the founders of the four schools of thought, did not sit to teach or issue any ruling until year 120 H, when he reached 40 years of age. This means that for 110 years after the Prophet’s death, none of the four Imams had uttered a single ruling. Indeed two of them had not been born yet. So, what was the status of Muslims who lived during this period lasting more than a century? I am simply asking this question to make it clear that following a particular school of thought is not essential. I have often stated that in practice very few people adhere to a single school of thought. A scholar who is well-versed in Islamic Fiqh will choose from each school the view he is most comfortable with, according to the evidence cited in support of that view. A layman follows a particular school only in the basics which we all learn in childhood. These apply only to daily acts of worship. On major matters, we refer the question to a scholar who does not need to know the school of thought the questioner belongs to. He should give him the answer that is easiest and supported by stronger and better evidence. Only a scholar who studied a school of thought in depth and decided to follow it diligently does so. Otherwise, we all follow what we learn from scholars who are required to give us the most suitable ruling in any question we put to them. Where does this leave us. It simply tells us that none of us practically follows a single school of thought. We all take some views from here and there, as suits us and as scholars tell us to do.
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| WAHABI Join Date: Jun 2007 Location: Islamic-Life.com Posts: 1,817 Gender: ![]() Way of life: Muslim Thanks: 48
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| As-Salamu 'Alaykum just to clarify, a layman, like myself, has no madhab and so we ask the people of knowledge, a mufti. It is ONLY permissible for the students of knowledge and scholars (who has not yet reached the level of ijtihad) to make taqleed of madhab or a particular ruling but they need make sure that they don't follow the incorrect opinions of their madhab. What is forbidden is the blind taqleed or it is against the ijma' (consensus) to make taqleed of madhab obligatory upon everyone. Wallahu A'lam
__________________ Fi Amanillah Wa As-Salamu 'Alaykum Wa Rahmatullahi Wa Barakatuhu The Prophet sal-allahu 'alayhi wa salam said: "The Muslim is a unique Ummah among the whole of mankind:Their Land is ONE, their War is ONE, their Peace is ONE, Their Honour is ONE and their Trust is ONE." [Relayed by Imam of Ahlus Sunnah - Ahmad ibn Hanbal - rahimahullah] Ahl al-Hadith are the followers of the Prophet (sal-allahu 'alayhi wa salam). Even if they did not accompany him, (it is as if) they witnessed his every breath. |
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| more haste, less speed Join Date: Jul 2008 Posts: 199 Gender: ![]() Way of life: Muslim Thanks: 5
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| WAHABI Join Date: Jun 2007 Location: Islamic-Life.com Posts: 1,817 Gender: ![]() Way of life: Muslim Thanks: 48
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| ^Wa'alaykum As-Salam as far concerning the first bit, this is well known: a person (student of knowledge or a scholar who isn't a mujtahid yet) following a madhab must not follow the errors of the Imaam he's making taqleed. He must follow the Qur'aan and Sunnah or the ijma' when his madhab/opinion of the Imaam is against the Qur'aan or Sunnah or the ijama'. As far concerning that following a madhab isn't obligtory then you can refer to All about following a Madhab and taqleed Wallahu A'lam
__________________ Fi Amanillah Wa As-Salamu 'Alaykum Wa Rahmatullahi Wa Barakatuhu The Prophet sal-allahu 'alayhi wa salam said: "The Muslim is a unique Ummah among the whole of mankind:Their Land is ONE, their War is ONE, their Peace is ONE, Their Honour is ONE and their Trust is ONE." [Relayed by Imam of Ahlus Sunnah - Ahmad ibn Hanbal - rahimahullah] Ahl al-Hadith are the followers of the Prophet (sal-allahu 'alayhi wa salam). Even if they did not accompany him, (it is as if) they witnessed his every breath. |
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| salafist Join Date: Dec 2008 Posts: 618 Gender: ![]() Way of life: Muslim Thanks: 2
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| The Best explanation of taqleed that i have seen after the classical jurists is the modern explanation given by a conglomerate of shiyookh in the Kingdom of Saudi Arabi and here is the relevant question Quote:
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